Let be an infinite set and be sets such that . Then
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Answer: C
We are given that is an infinite set and is the union of sets:
Let us analyze the properties of the sets :
- Proof for Option C: Suppose none of the sets are infinite. This means every (for ) is a finite set. Since the union of a finite number of finite sets is always finite, the union must also be finite. However, this contradicts the given fact that is an infinite set. Therefore, our assumption is false, and at least one of the sets must be infinite.
We can eliminate the other options with simple counterexamples:
- Option A is incorrect: Let (the set of all integers, which is infinite). Let and . Both and are infinite, so neither is finite.
- Option B is incorrect: Let . Let , , and . Here, two sets ( and ) are finite.
- Option D is incorrect: In the counterexample for Option A, both and are infinite, showing that more than one set can be infinite.
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