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Official PYQ · 2023

GATE CS 2023 Q39 — Sets, Relations and Functions

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Let f:A→Bf: A \rightarrow B be an onto (or surjective) function, where AA and BB are nonempty sets. Define an equivalence relation ∼\sim on the set AA as
a1∼a2 if f(a1)=f(a2),a_{1} \sim a_{2} \text{ if } f\left(a_{1}\right)=f\left(a_{2}\right),
where a1,a2∈Aa_{1}, a_{2} \in A. Let E={[x]:x∈A}\mathcal{E}=\{[x]: x \in A\} be the set of all the equivalence classes under ∼\sim. Define a new mapping F:E→BF: \mathcal{E} \rightarrow B as
F([x])=f(x), for all the equivalence classes [x] in E. F([x])=f(x), \quad \text{ for all the equivalence classes }[x] \text{ in } \mathcal{E} \text{. }
Which of the following statements is/are TRUE?\text{TRUE}?

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Answer: B;C;D

To determine the properties of the mapping F:E→BF: \mathcal{E} \rightarrow B defined by F([x])=f(x)F([x]) = f(x), let us analyze each property systematically:

  1. Well-definedness of FF:

    For FF to be well-defined, the output must not depend on the choice of the representative of the equivalence class. Let [a1]=[a2][a_1] = [a_2] for some a1,a2∈Aa_1, a_2 \in A.

    By definition of equivalence classes, [a1]=[a2]  ⟹  a1∼a2  ⟹  f(a1)=f(a2)[a_1] = [a_2] \implies a_1 \sim a_2 \implies f(a_1) = f(a_2).

    Thus, F([a1])=f(a1)=f(a2)=F([a2])F([a_1]) = f(a_1) = f(a_2) = F([a_2]). This proves that FF is well-defined. Therefore, statement A is FALSE.

  2. Injectivity (One-to-One) of FF:

    To check if FF is injective, let F([a1])=F([a2])F([a_1]) = F([a_2]) for some [a1],[a2]∈E[a_1], [a_2] \in \mathcal{E}.

    By definition of FF, this means f(a1)=f(a2)f(a_1) = f(a_2).

    By definition of the equivalence relation ∼\sim, f(a1)=f(a2)  ⟹  a1∼a2  ⟹  [a1]=[a2]f(a_1) = f(a_2) \implies a_1 \sim a_2 \implies [a_1] = [a_2].

    Since F([a1])=F([a2])  ⟹  [a1]=[a2]F([a_1]) = F([a_2]) \implies [a_1] = [a_2], FF is injective. Therefore, statement C is TRUE.

  3. Surjectivity (Onto) of FF:

    To check if FF is surjective, let b∈Bb \in B. Since the original function f:A→Bf: A \rightarrow B is onto, there exists some element a∈Aa \in A such that f(a)=bf(a) = b.

    For this element aa, we have the equivalence class [a]∈E[a] \in \mathcal{E}. Applying FF, we get:

    F([a])=f(a)=bF([a]) = f(a) = b

    Since every element b∈Bb \in B has a pre-image [a]∈E[a] \in \mathcal{E}, FF is surjective. Therefore, statement B is TRUE.

  4. Bijectivity of FF:

    Since FF is both injective (one-to-one) and surjective (onto), it is a bijective function. Therefore, statement D is TRUE.

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